O(n \log n)

e^{i\pi} + 1 = 0

\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-x^2}\,dx = \sqrt{\pi}

\text{P} \overset{?}{=} \text{NP}

PV = \frac{FV}{(1+r)^n}

\frac{\partial V}{\partial t} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 S^2 \frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial S^2} + rS\frac{\partial V}{\partial S} - rV = 0

\sigma(x) = \frac{1}{1+e^{-x}}

f^* = \frac{bp - q}{b}

Posts

All the articles I've posted.

German Beekeeping Law

Posted on:December 25, 2015 at 02:17 AM
What makes you... you

Posted on:October 28, 2015 at 03:17 AM
Is Mathematics Inherently True

Posted on:October 10, 2015 at 03:17 AM